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nikonratm
December 8th, 2005, 07:28 PM
Ack, someone please help me!

(a) Consider a set S of strings S = {0^i1, 0^i2, ...} representing the natural numbers i1, i2, ... This set may be finite or infinite. Is every such set recursively enumerable?

(b) Consider a given set S as above, and assume that it is infinite and known to be RE (either because you proved it for all sets S above or this one has been shown to be). Consider the infinite union of languages Lunion = UiESL(Mi) [that reads the union from i element of S of L(Mi)] where Mi denotes the ith turing machine in lexicographic order using a predetermined canonical method of representing TMs. Is this language Lunion necessarily RE?

(c) Is the union of any infinite number of RE languages always RE?

thanks

nikonratm
December 11th, 2005, 06:37 PM
what about just part c? can anyone help me with that?
(is the union of any infinite number of re languages always re?)